[Opera-users] IQers=140%?

[Alan James]

On Wed, 27 Mar 2002 14:29:31 -0000, CJ <hwoodcj at yahoo.co.uk> wrote:

>Let's see if I understand this: If 40% of the population has a median 
>IQ, the *other* 100% spreads above and below?

Read it again:

Fred Wrote:
"By definition, at least 50% of the population have an IQ not greater 
than the median and at least 50% have an IQ not less than it. (Note 
that if a large number have an IQ coinciding with the median, then 
there will be more than 50% in each category)."

That is, if a persons IQ is exactly the median, then that person is 
both in the group "not less than the median" and in the group "not 
more than the median". 

Alan